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But the directions of both forces are always opposite
to the direction of v. Right or wrong?
Wrong. That may be the key misconception. So let's back up. Learning
proceeds from the known to the unknown. I'm hoping you know about the
tensor of inertia and its role in angular momentum. Suppose I have an
oblong object such as a disk. Its tensor of inertial looks something like
1 0 0
0 1 0
0 0 2
If I spin it around the X axis, I get a nice steady rotation around the X
axis, with a certain angular momentum. If I spin it around the Z axis, I
get a nice steady rotation with a certain angular momentum. But if I
skewer the disk (through the center) with an axle in some cockeyed
direction in the XZ plane and rotate it around that axis, it will wobble
like crazy. The angular momentum vector will *not* be aligned with the
angular velocity vector. If you doubt me, do the experiment. Get a disk,
drill a cockeyed hole, glue in an axle, and try to turn it. See what happens.
Now popping back from analogy-land to tricycle-land: We have effectively a
tensor of friction. It has a really small eigenvalue in the direction of
rotation, and a really big eigenvalue in the crosswise direction. When the
wheel is turned, the initial (northward) velocity is *not* an eigenvector
of this matrix. Consequently the frictional force is *not* opposite to v
-- indeed not even close.