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I'm in general agreement with John Denker - it can't actually matter how you plot; however there are a couple of points that I think are worth discussing. As was stated, YMMV, and I'm happy to learn of corrections to my misunderstandings.
1. If your model has an additive constant (e.g., x0 for linear acceleration data starting from rest), how you choose to plot can make it more easy or more difficult to interpret the intercept. It's especially nice for beginning students to have an immediate meaning of the intercept that comes out of the linear regression. In the case of the pendulum example here, it's 6s bc the intercept is zero.
2. The most common linear least squares derivation assumes that the variance is in the vert axis with no variance in the horz. If you want to be pedantic and are using this regression algorithm, then when linearizing you should plot the variable with the least variance on the horz axis.
Here is where I have some questions, and maybe someone here can fill in some missing pieces.
Diagonalizing the covariance matrix finds the eigenvectors/values of the data set. This is a principle components (PCA) calculation (for which the data is typically scaled and centered to zero the intercept first). But the PCA is /maximizing/ the variance along an axis it discovers. This axis is the first PC, the one with the largest eigenvalue. I've never found a proof of it in a stats book, but it appears that the first PC is collinear with the slope of the total linear least squares regression, which is /minimizing/ a variance. In a handwaving way, I can accept that maximizing one type of variance is the same as minimizing another, but it seems dangerous to generalize this. I'd feel better with a linalg proof of the connection in 2 dimensions rather than always relying on "proof by computation."