Re: irreversible adiabatic compression of an ideal gas

[brian whatcott <inet@INTELLISYS.NET>]

At 11:48 10/30/99 -0500, Carl wrote:
> ... What still nags at me is the following: If
> the above is correct, why is it that if I compress the gas *reversibly*
> (i.e., following the adiabat P*V^1.67) by dribbling the weight onto the
> piston bit by bit, I can squeeze the gas down to nothing (P->infinity =>
> V->0), but cannot if I do it *irreversibly* by suddenly dropping the whole
> weight onto the piston?
>
> Dr. Carl E. Mungan

Evidently because an infinitely heavy weight invokes an infinitely high
 pressure inside the cylinder when the weight is suddenly applied, but
theinfinitesimally increased weight meets only finite resistance from
internal pressure.
   Ask any frog sitting in a pot of warming water....


brian whatcott <inet@intellisys.net>
Altus OK