Re: Newton's 3rd law? was Re: inertial forces (definition)
From: "JACK L. URETSKY (C)1998; HEP DIVISION, ARGONNE NATIONAL LAB ARGONNE, IL 60439" <JLU@HEP.ANL.GOV>
Date: Tue, 26 Oct 1999 12:50:58 -0500
Hi Bob-
The difference is that the first <may> indicate a numerical
equality but need not, because it is a definition; the second <only>
indicates a numerical equality.
You seem to have ignored the part of my comment that emphasises
that the two sides of the second equality are independently measurable.
You caviled:
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Hi Jack,
Yes, but they both indicate a numerical equality.
That was the question.
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Regards,
Jack
"I scored the next great triumph for science myself,
to wit, how the milk gets into the cow. Both of us
had marveled over that mystery a long time. We had
followed the cows around for years - that is, in the
daytime - but had never caught them drinking fluid of
that color."
Mark Twain, Extract from Eve's
Autobiography