Chronology | Current Month | Current Thread | Current Date |
[Year List] [Month List (current year)] | [Date Index] [Thread Index] | [Thread Prev] [Thread Next] | [Date Prev] [Date Next] |
I don't understand your reasoning. In my opinion the "lift/upwash"
process probably violates Newton's laws. Here's why I think so:
If an airplane flies into still air,
then the parcels of air are not
moving initially. The wing approaches, and upwash begins.
When upwash
first begins, a parcel of air must be accelerated upwards, and this can
only occur if there is a force-pair between that parcel of air and some
other object or parcel of air.
Why does this parcel of air initially start moving upwards to become
upwash? That's what I need to know.
If the wing somehow causes the
initial upwards acceleration of the air-parcel, then Newton's laws require
that a force-pair exist between that parcel and the wing.
If such a
force-pair exists, then when the parcel of air is initially accelerated
upwards to become upwash, the wing must experience an equal downwards
force and accelerate downwards.
If the wing does NOT cause the initial upwards acceleration of the
oncoming parcel,
So, has the upwash now contributed to the lifting force? No, because we
don't know what caused the parcel of air to initially accelerate upwards