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The typical equation given for the period of a simple pendulum is
(2*pi)sqrt(g/L)(1 + (1/4)sin^2(theta/2) + (9/64)sin^4(theta/2) ...)
i.e. an infinite series.
When I solve the conical pendulum I get that the period is (2*pi)sqr
t(g/L)sqrt(sec(theta)).
they don't look quite the same to me, and I suspect they are not the
same. If they are the same, why would anyone report the simple
pendulum period in the infinite series form if they could equally well
have written it as the square-root of the secant?
Has anyone done this? Are the periods of the simple pendulum and
conical pendulum truly the same, or are they, in fact, different?